There are some, that for one reason or another, will attempt to bind an Old Testament law to us and they will use Matthew 5:17 to do so. The problem comes from the use of some translations that used the word abolish in this verse where it is not appropriate.

Matthew 5:17

NIV
17"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.
KJV
17Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

The intent of Jesus' words here was to state that the law of Moses was not to come to a fruitless end, but he was here to fulfill it. The purpose and original design of it is perpetual. This passage should not be used to enforce any old testament laws and examples such as worshiping with instrumental music or keeping the Sabbath. We can look through some of the modern Bible versions and see that the word destroy was replaced with abolish, which does not exactly jive with the original Greek. To do so puts us at odds with Paul and the Hebrew writer in these passages:

Ephesians 2:15

NIV
15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace
KJV
15Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

Hebrews 10:9

NIV
9Then he said, "Here I am, I have come to do your will." He sets aside the first to establish the second.
KJV
9Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.

The writers here are reminding us that the law, as a legal code, were nailed to the cross with Jesus and the word "Abolish" is correct in this context.


From Strong's Numbers

Used in Matt 5:17 G2647
καταλύω
kataluō
kat-al-oo'-o
From G2596 and G3089; to loosen down (disintegrate), that is, (by implication) to demolish (literally or figuratively); specifically (compare G2646) to halt for the night: - destroy, dissolve, be guest, lodge, come to nought, overthrow, throw down.

Used in Eph 2:15 G2673
καταργέω
katargeō
kat-arg-eh'-o
From G2596 and G691; to be (render) entirely idle (useless), literally or figuratively: - abolish, cease, cumber, deliver, destroy, do away, become (make) of no (none, without) effect, fail, loose, bring (come) to nought, put away (down), vanish away, make void.

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Butch Adams
Blue Ridge, VA
http://daleridgechurchofchrist.net
http://mydailypause.org

Brother Butch, do I have your permission to use this for my contending fro the faith on the City-Data forum ? The Matt. verse was used to attempt to prove that the old law will never be 'abolished'. The 'til heaven and earth shall pass away' part, was used also, as the proof text.

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If we live in Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit. Gal. 5.25 NJKV

Oh, you bet. Anything I contribute is fair game to use for winning souls if it helps. I'm also hoping some of the brothers and sisters here will add comment. I'd like to us flesh this out into a complete study.

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Butch Adams
Blue Ridge, VA
http://daleridgechurchofchrist.net
http://mydailypause.org

Bro. Butch,

For some reason or another, these verses never did "bother" me in the interpretation. I very seldom use one verse or a verse to establish a point but rather the context of what is being taught over several verses or even the complete chapter. Maybe I'm being too naive or maybe just a little "dumb".

I have been called to task in the past for not using the KJV interpretation only but I still use my ASV and NASB for most of my work. I have the KJV, NKJV and others also and many times I read all of them on a particular subject. The NIV I shy away from due to the process of translation but it still has its good points.

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For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. 1 Tim 2:5 (U-NASB)

This is one of the contradictions that the KJV only folks use as one of their reasons.

I have spent some time trying to understand what the problem is and it turns out to be a main point of argument for some Seventh Day and Pentecostal doctrine. Like you, I have never had a problem with it, but it turns out there are many that do.

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Butch Adams
Blue Ridge, VA
http://daleridgechurchofchrist.net
http://mydailypause.org

It is strange that some cling to the Old Testament Law. But it was God himself who called it the Old Testament. Note:
“For if that first covenant had been faultless, then would no place have been sought for a second.
For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, That I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah;
Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers In the day that I took them by the hand to lead them forth out of the land of Egypt; For they continued not in my covenant, And I regarded them not, saith the Lord.
For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel After those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, And on their heart also will I write them: And I will be to them a God, And they shall be to me a people:
And they shall not teach every man his fellow-citizen, And every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: For all shall know me, From the least to the greatest of them.
For I will be merciful to their iniquities, And their sins will I remember no more.
In that he saith, A NEW covenant he hath made the first OLD. But that which is becoming old and waxeth aged is nigh unto vanishing away” (Heb. 8:7-13) ASV.

What was faulty with the Old Law as spoken by the inspired writer of Hebrews in the very first sentence above? I mean after all, it was our David of old who said that “The law of the Lord is perfect…the statutes of the Lord are right…the commandment of the Lord is pure” (Psalm 19:7-8). The fault lies not in the Old Law, the fault is that no man could live it perfectly (except Christ) because of his sin and under the Old Law there is no forgiveness of sins. (Heb. 7:18-19, 10:4). Plus, the Old Law was written for the Israelites (Deut. 5:1-3). It was never intended for us Gentiles (Rom. 3:1-2). Paul makes it very clear that the Old Law was written for our “learning” (Rom. 15:4) and NEVER our “keeping.” “Look: I, Paul, say to you that if you accept circumcision, Christ will be of no advantage to you. I testify again to every man who accepts circumcision that he is obligated to KEEP THE WHOLE LAW. You are severed from Christ, you who would be justified by the law; you have fallen away from grace” (Gal. 5:2-4) ESV. To “keep the whole law” means you must keep the Sabbath, burn animal sacrifices, offer incense, etc., along with all the other 613 statues and ordinances.

To me, Jesus did fulfill the Old Law by living a perfect, sinless, life. We are saved by the blood of Jesus, no doubt. But we tend to forget that we are also saved by his life: “For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life” (Rom. 5:10). Otherwise, God could have offered any man for a blood sacrifice. PLUS, He fulfilled the Old Law by His coming and that was the point that Jesus expressed: “For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled” (Matt. 5:18). Did all come to pass…Jesus said it did to His disciples shortly before His death: “…These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that ALL THINGS MUST BE FULFILLED, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me” (Luke 24:44).

Just some thoughts,

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BVidlar

“What is man, that thou art mindful of him? and the son of man, that thou visitest him” (Psalm 8:4)?

Well said; too many try to use both the Old and New Testaments scriptures together to fit the mold of their particular philosophy. The Old is needed for study and the New is the "instruction book" for us to live by today.

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For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus. 1 Tim 2:5 (U-NASB)

Question 1: What scriptures then was Paul referring to in 2 Timothy 3:16?

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Question 2: Why are there so many references to the Torah and the Tenakh in the epistles?

Question 3: What "study" is profitable for today in reading the Old Testament? What should we be studying and gathering from that study?

Welcome to the board RND.

Of course 2 Timothy 3:16 is speaking of ALL Scripture. Why do you ask? Because you want to apply worshipping on the Sabbath as a commandment that should be kept today? Hebrews 10:9 and Ephesians 2:15 are clear in context that the old law was nailed to the cross with our Lord. We follow the fit and finish of worship given to us by example and commandment in the New Testament today.

Q's 2 and 3 are both answerable by saying that the Old Testament continues to be profitable for study to help prove that Jesus is Lord. It helps us know our God. It forms a complete picture of what God expects from us.

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Butch Adams
Blue Ridge, VA
http://daleridgechurchofchrist.net
http://mydailypause.org

Hey brother Rob,

David has to post in the SDA section only. You can find him over there.

Thanks, Bro

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Don Gelles,
Preacher, Church of Christ in Hyde Park
Austin, Texas
www.hydeparkcoc.org