The one whose spouse who has been put away for fornication - Matt 19:9.

Elijah is there or is there not an exception in Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32?

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1 Peter 5:6-7: Humble yourselves, therefore, under the mighty hand of God so that at the proper time he may exalt you, casting all your anxieties on him, because he cares for you. -ESV

Elijah 101,
a) Include v. 27 with I Corinthians 7:28
"Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned" (I Corinthains 7:27b, 28a). There are those who were "loosed from" their wives, but if they married, they would not be sinning.

b) Why did Jesus give an exception if it is pointless? He could have said, "Whosoever shall put away his wife, and shall marry another, committeth adultery." You may be trying to answer that question with this statement:

"This is Why Jesus says (Except) If there is "No Fornication"... You cannot get a Divorce."

but I'm having a hard time understanding your thought here. Can you punctuate it a little differently to make it a little clearer? Why is "except" in parentheses?

A+B=C

1+2=3
If the result is not 3, then either A is not 1 or B is not 2.

Divorce(if not over fornication)+Remarriage=Adultery
If the result is not adultery, then either there was no divorce(not over fornication)[This would exclude a divorce over fornication (Matthew 5:32; 19:9)] or there was no remarriage.

This maybe (or maybe not) a simpler way to say this:
With the exception of Matthew 5:32; 19:9, a divorce that happens because of fornication is not included in Christ's definition of adultery here. A=a divorce over other than fornication. A divorce over fornication would therefore fall under "not A."
The former spouse who was guilty of the fornication can not remarry because that would be adultery, but he that puts away his wife because she committed fornication who then remarries does not commit adultery.

Greg

The innocent party in a divorce is just that... innocent. The innocent one, under the exception in Matt 19:9 is free to remarry. The one guilty of fornication is not qualified to remarry.

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"that in all things he might have the preeminence." Colossians 1:18

Quite. This is precisely why the word "except" is used in Matt. 19:9. Would those who attempt to "finesse" or "massage" the meaning of "except" in Matt. 19:9, also do the same with "except" in John 3:3 (KJV)? If not, then why not?

Elijah your position makes no sense.

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and he that marrieth her when she is put away committeth adultery. (Matthew 19:9 ASV).

And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. Matt 19:9 KJV

Whoever puts away or divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery EXCEPT that putting away or divorce be for the cause of fornication. in which case adultery is NOT committed by the putting away party.

Christ gives a CLEAR EXCEPTION for remarriage.

Marriage is serious. It is a divine institution. I wish we didn't even need to teach on divorce, however people sin. Christ taught on divorce and gave ONE instance where one could marry, divorce, and then marry again. Only one. That is if they put away their spouse because their spouse committed fornication. No more no less.

__________________
1 Peter 5:6-7: Humble yourselves, therefore, under the mighty hand of God so that at the proper time he may exalt you, casting all your anxieties on him, because he cares for you. -ESV

Elijah,

First:
I Corinthians 7:27 "Art thou loosed from a wife?" "Loosed" is in the perfect tense, which means there is a completed process that resulted in this person being in the state of being loosed. He was married then He was loosed. After this Paul says, "But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned." THEN he speaks of a virgin woman. "and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned."

You asked: "Now [are] Divorced People Virgins?" Are you saying that divorced people have no right to marry because they are not virgins? Do you say they are defiled because they have had sexual intercourse with someone even though it is their own spouse?
I ask you: Are those whose spouses are dead virgins?
I also ask you: Are those who have had premarital sex virgins?


Second:
Why did Jesus give an exception in Matthew 5:32; 19:9? AND PLEASE do not say, "This is Why Jesus says (Except) If there is "No Fornication"... You cannot get a Divorce." I told you I don't understand what you are saying here. For my benefit, please clarify this statement.

Jesus says: If a man divorces his wife AND IF that divorce is not over fornication (meaning if it is over fornication then the "then" clause does not follow) AND he remarries, THEN he commits adultery.

Third:
"Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge" (Hebrews 13:4).
The marriage bed is undefiled. It is the bed of the adultery that is defiled. And this is not a literal bed, but what goes on in the bed.
It is not the faithful spouse that is defiled, but the unfaithful one.

Greg

Elijah,

Are you saying that whenever a virgin has intercourse he/she is married at that point?

"But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned.
1 Cor 7:28 (KJV)

Because they are VIRGINS"

Not the one who is loosed from his wife - the one which Paul was just speaking about in the previous phrase.

If one who is loosed from his wife (not a virgin) marries, he has not sinned (I Corinthians 7:28a - The antecedent of the first "thou" is in the latter part of v. 27 - the one who is loosed from his wife.
If a virgin marries, she has not sinned either (This is not a point of contention).

Are you saying that when a male virgin and a female virgin have sexual intercourse, they are married?

Greg

Sorry, didn't get my post on in time

For thought:

An exception for divorce ... if one really feels they must ... yes.

Christ is very clear on additional marriages, of either party:

The divorcee: Matthew 5:32b "whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery." And we know that this is repeated in 19:9b. Think for a moment. Right or wrong, good reason or bad, a woman (or man) is divorced by their spouse. They might be the innocent party, they might not be. In any case, the divorced are not to be married by anyone else or those that marry them are in adultery ...against a person who is no longer in a marriage with the divorced person, even if the person doing the divorcing was in the wrong ... or right. Whosoever ... very key word. WHY are they not to be married to someone else???

The divorcer: Mark 10:11b-12 "Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her. And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery." Again, we see the word "Whosoever". That can mean anyone, right or wrong, good reason or bad ... In any case, who ever divorces their spouse and marries someone else is in adultery. Very explicitly clear. We are not to understand any verse, especially a not so clear verse, to contradict any other verse, especially one that is crystal clear ( neither are we to insert what is not there). Powerful word, whosoever ... WHY are they not to be married to someone else????


1 Corinthians 7:11b "And a husband is not to divorce his wife." This is not a mere suggestion, it is a major warning. Even though he (or she) might be able to divorce their spouse (according to the Matthew 5:32 & 19:9 escape clause everyone seems to run to), they are warned not to. Why? There is such an obvious myriad of sin afterward ... all caused by lusts of this world. It just ends up God deciding what sins belong to whom, which is what Mt 5:32 and 19:9 are all about in the first place... who owns the sins of the divorce and after.

Why are they not to be married to someone else??? So they can possibly be reconciled (1 Cor 7:11a) and not be an abomination to God!!! Deut 24:4 God does not change.

Sad subject, no matter how one looks at it. A few cents added for thought.

In Christian Love ...

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The LORD is my shepherd (Psalms 23:1a)

The exception in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 are part of the condition for the adultery.
If one divorces for a reason other than sexual immorality [let's call this d(e)] and then remarries (r) then they are commiting adultery (a)

d(e)+r=a

In order for it to be adultery on the divorcer's part, both those conditions must be met. If it is divorce for the reason of sexual immorality [d(f)] that is not d(e).

d(f)+r=?

What if it is d(e), but no remarriage? Is there adultery?
If a wife divorces her husband for marital abuse [d(e)] and does not remarry (not r), what sin has she committed? The Lord, through Paul, even addressed this situation in I Corinthians 7:10, 11.

Greg