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Originally Posted by Burgon'sGhost  Concerning the share of mistakes in the KJV, I agree that some passages (e.g. John 3) have had Greek-English translational errors (corrected in the Modern KJV and others), however I am much more curious as to your implied common root from which the KJV and the NIV originate ... relative to liberties taken with the original ... what NT Greek text do you infer is the original? KJV and NIV come from two totally diametrically opposed approaches to textual criticism ... and the later from a totally rewritten Greek-NT which originated in 1881. I assume you address the Nestle-Aland Greek NT as the origin text from which both translations stem? Which then leads us to the inevitable questions ... how accurate is the Nestle-Aland Greek NT to the original autographs and what factual proof do we have of such? |
I must have spoken ambiguously; I did not intend to assert or imply that both the KJV and the NIV came from the same source text; I merely stated that I have a book which has the KJV, NIV, and Nestle text in parallel. I have a couple other Greek texts as well, and from them I can see that some of the differences between the KJV and NIV can be attributed to differences in the source texts.